GENERAL DISCUSSION on the Variation Challenge "Marizápalos"
This is the place for general discussions which don't fit in the main thread or the byweekly updates thread
- Perhaps you have a guitar question inspired by the challenge?
- Want to chat about general topics of early music like ornamentation, harmonic etc.?
- Or just looking to chat with fellow challenge participants about music?
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- Yates says this is a "cancion bailable" associated with the theatre and a baile not a danza (P44-46).
- There is some history on Marizápalos, identifying it is a romanza here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mar%C3%ADa_Calder%C3%B3n
- The lyrics for the romanza are: https://www.google.com/search?q=marizapalos+lyrics
- A performance of the sung romanza can be viewed here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gKBngq7WRK0 and if you press "Show More" beneath the video you can see a translation of the lyrics.
- We all know what "...making bad use of their latin" must mean, but how?
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This is about the last section. Imo there is a mistake in the score: bar 164-165 should be one bar, with same rhythmic pattern as next bar At least, that’s what I think the manuscript gives. The sign for the sixteenth notes is not very clear, but these notes are all marked in one bar. And it makes sense in context.
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Hi everyone,
I am thinking about the fact, that in bar 150 and 154, in Tabulature and Notation, a "g" is wanted .
"That g hurts my ears - I want to hear a Fis (f-sharp)
What about the following Idea ?
In renaissance-Lute-Notation the third string is always tuned to "Fis(f-sharp)".
Now we don't know who made this Manuskript ?
If this guy was in hurry and thinking on Lute-Tabulature, he could make these notation-mistakes ?
Playing an "o" on a Lutes third string will produce a great "Fis(f-sharp)"
I am 100% shure - the Manuskript is not correct - I will not play this hurting "g" anymore.
What do you think about this Theory ?
Best Regards
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@Emma Baile and danza are close, but not the same. Today, baile is used in the flamenco world to refer to flamenco dance while danza is used to refer to ballet, etc. The roots of this seem to go back to the baroque as explained here:
So Irish step dancing is a danza while flamenco is a baile in the baroque sense. It does not seem a great distinction to us today, but remember that the Zarabanda was considered lascivious and banned by the Church around 1583. I wonder if this is the distinction that the church was using to ban certain dances?